I remember some time ago saying something about 'Abdu'l-Baha using the KJV,
and then being corrected by someone. But now that I think about that, this
leads me to ask: why is the KJV quoted extensively throughout SAQ? Did
'Abdu'l-Baha just so happen to say what in Persian what would translate to
exact KJV verses, or did the translators ignore what He actually said and
just include quotes from the KJV?
Dear David,
I expect they just assumed that was the correct way to translate it.
When the Iqan quotes the Bible it is exactly the same as the KJV.
Did Baha'u'llah, in Persian, quote the Bible exactly as it would translate
as in the English KJV?
No, the Guardian made that decision.
If so, it would appear to make the KJV the 'Baha'i
Bible,' though Shoghi Effendi said it wasn't.
Then it doesn't.
warmest, Susan
__________________________________________________
You are subscribed to Baha'i Studies as: mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
To unsubscribe send a blank email to mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Baha'i Studies is available through the following:
Mail - mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
Web - http://list.jccc.edu/read/?forum=bahai-st
News - news://list.jccc.edu/bahai-st
Public - http://www.escribe.com/religion/bahaist
Old Public - http://www.mail-archive.com/[EMAIL PROTECTED]
New Public - http://www.mail-archive.com/[EMAIL PROTECTED]
