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>Jesus, for example, did not prohibit polygamy, but
abolished divorce except in the case of fornication;
Muhammad limited the number of wives to four, but
making plurality of wives contingent on justice, and
reintroducing permission for divorce; Bahá'u'lláh, Who was
revealing His Teachings in the milieu of a Muslim society,
introduced the question of monogamy gradually in accordance
with the principles of wisdom and the progressive
unfoldment of His purpose. The fact that He left His
followers with an infallible Interpreter of His Writings
enabled Him to outwardly permit two wives in the Kitáb-i-Aqdas
but uphold a condition that enabled 'Abdu'l-Bahá to
elucidate later that the intention of the law was to enforce
>monogamy.
Both Muhammad and Baha'u'llah allowed a plurality of wives contingent on
justice. Since 'Abdul'-Baha clarified that justice is impossible, doesn't that
mean that Muhammad never really allowed polygamy? What, then, of the
apologetic explanation taken from the letter from the House of Justice on the
subject:
'Regarding the wives of Bahá'u'lláh, extracts from letters written on behalf of
the beloved Guardian set this subject in context. They indicate that
Bahá'u'lláh was "acting according to the laws of Islám, which had not yet been
superseded", and that He was following "the customs of the people of His own
land":
...as regards Bahá'u'lláh's marriage it should be noted that His three
marriages were all contracted before He revealed His Book of Laws, and even
before His declaration in Baghdád, at a time when Bahá'í marriage laws had not
yet been known, and the Revelation not yet disclosed.
>(25 May 1938 to a National Spiritual Assembly)
Bahá'u'lláh had no concubine, He had three legal wives. As He married them
before the "Aqdas" (His book of laws) was revealed, He was only acting
according to the laws of Islám, which had not yet been superseded. He made
plurality of wives conditional upon justice; 'Abdu'l-Bahá interpreted this to
mean that a man may not have more than one wife at a time, as it is impossible
to be just to two or more women in marriage.
>(11 February 1944 to an individual believer)
>
>...Bahá'u'lláh married the first and second wives while He was still in
>Tihrán, and the third wife while He was in Baghdád. At that time, the Laws of
>the "Aqdas" had not been revealed, and secondly, He was following the Laws of
>the previous Dispensation and the customs of the people of His own land.
>(14 January 1953 to an individual believer)'
>
>
>
>Since Muhammad also made a plurality of wives contingent on justice, how could
>Baha'u'llah have been following the laws of Islam in taking multiple wives?
>Did any of the Imams clarify what the Qur'an said on plurality of wives, as
>'Abdul-Baha did Baha'u'llah?
>
>
>
>
>Regards,
>David
>
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