On 11/02/18 15:46, Robert Heller wrote:
> Here is a "practical" application:
>
> Lets say you buy a case of tomatoes for $10 -- this would be a transaction
> from your bank account (for the check you gave the vegetable wholeseller) of
> $10 to your Assets:vegetables account. (It is not actually an expense!). Then
> you sell that case of tomatoes for $12. This would be a split transaction: $10
> from your Assets:vegetables account and $2 to an income account. The $12 would
> come from whatever account the $12 was paid into (eg "Cash" if it was a cash
> transaction). This brings the Assets:vegetables down to zero (you have no
> vegetables in stock right now). At the end of the year you generate a report
> showing the Assets:vegetables at the beginning of the year and and the end of
> the year. The difference is your "cost of goods sold" -- this is what goes on
> your tax form (actually, the form has your inventory at the beginning of the
> year, and your inventory at the end of the year, plus whatever you spent to
> acquire your inventory during the year, at least that is how the 1040C form
> works and I guess theo 1040F is similar).

Our emails crossed.  I see what you mean, but I don't think the tax
authorities would find that particularly legal here.  It would also make
VAT computations impossible, I think, although we are exempt from VAT.

Thanks for explaining clearly!

-- 

Jeff Abrahamson
+33 6 24 40 01 57
+44 7920 594 255

http://p27.eu/jeff/

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