> It functions much like A e. _V would. A proof using this theorem can always
> plug in _V for V but it also could plug in On, RR, or whatever is convenient.
> Perhaps looking at <https://us.metamath.org/mpeuni/elex.html> makes it clear.

Okay, elements of ZF classes are always sets, so A e. V restricts A from being
proper classes. That begs the question why one would ever use A e. _V though.
Is this just a case where there's no particular convention?

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