jeffmeh wrote: > How is this for being on the fence? > > If one can reliably differentiate A from B in a blind test, then he can > legitimately state a subjective preference. > > If one cannot reliably differentiate A from B in a blind test, then he > cannot legitimately state a subjective preference. > > Our ability to objectively measure is limited by the technology > available, and perhaps ultimately limited by physical laws (see > Heisenberg). > > If one can legitimately state a subjective preference, yet one cannot > explain the difference through an objective measure, this is a > limitation of our ability to measure, not an invalidation of the > legitimate subjective preference. > > This appears logically sound to me, but if anyone wishes to enlighten > me I am open to it. :)
That summarises my position pretty accurately. R. _______________________________________________ audiophiles mailing list audiophiles@lists.slimdevices.com http://lists.slimdevices.com/lists/listinfo/audiophiles
