OK. I skimmed the paper and I'm still skeptical. I'm a scientist but this is not my area. First, this is a very small study with only 10-30 individuals per test. The findings are only marginally statistically significant (I computed the p-values), and in some cases not significant. They don't say how they calculated their statistical tests (their F-stats), but it looks to me like they are treating different samples of the same individual as independent observations, probably a no-no, and treating them otherwise would likely make the results statistically insignificant. It's not clear that it's double blind so it's probably not. (It is stated to be single blind: the listener doesn't know which sample he/she is listening to.) All of this would lead us to think that the results are at best suggestive and definitely not conclusive. Given that there are many other studies that find no effect in similar tests, one would have to still lean toward thinking that it's more likely there is no effect. This is particularly true given the lack of a theory for the effect.
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