That depends entirely on what you mean by "definitely hear a
difference". As has been discussed many times here before the human
brain is a curious thing.

Logically, if one is hearing a difference but there isn't actually one,
which can very easily happen, then there is no difference that can be
measured.

If however one is hearing a difference that really is there, then
clearly it can be measured (the human ear is just a measuring device
after all). Of course whatever non-human measuring device you are using
needs to be sensitive enough, accurate enough and precise enough to
detect the difference.

The difficulty of course comes in knowing whether you are really
hearing a difference or just think you are. No amount of us discussing
that here is going to come up with a conclusion that everyone is going
to remotely agree on as the "I have golden ears, my brain is
unfoolable, double blind tests confuse my ears" and the "I can measure
everything" camps are so diametrically opposed in their "beliefs". And
yes, I exaggerated those descriptions for comic effect.


-- 
andynormancx

Yes, it will. Yes, all of them. Yes, SoftSqueeze as well. What ?
I SAID ALL OF THEM !
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