marcoc1712 wrote: 
> Again, Who decide when evidence are enougth do become "accepted fact"?
> Oh, yes...Always You.

No, not me at all, except as a tiny part of the scientific and
engineering community. The people who design the gear you use.

> Sure, but here is not the same, I say I heard it and I'm not the only
> one, Again what more evidence you need to accept we feel it (not on why
> and how), please be clear!

The established gold standard is properly controlled, double-blind
testing. The best standards are ITU-R BS.1116 and BS.1534. Both are
definitely worth reading.

> Why not, if you could hear a 40Hz pedal in your little room is becouse
> of it. Try to measure and detect the 40Hz note in sound... The fact your
> instruments could not detect it means is not there?
> 
> The fact is that IS in the music BUT NOT in the sound (where music is
> the perceived message ans sound is the phisical medium) becouse masking
> take effects only in the uman brain.

If it is not there it is not there. Just like there is a lot of stuff in
a mp3 file that isn't there, but your ear fills in. If it isn't in the
data, and it isn't in the sound wave that comes from your speaker, it
isn't physically there. And that is not splitting hairs - it is a very
important design parameter for the sound system that does or does not
have to reproduce the 40 Hz signal - and in this case we don't, as it
doesn't have to be there for your ear-brain combination to *think* that
it is hearing a 40 Hz tone. It isn't. It is generating the perception in
the brain. 

> The "errror" is in the instruments that don't look at the particular
> combination of sounds being played that origin the 40Hz note or in my
> brain? If for you is in my brain, ok, stop here.

Isn't saying "if you don't agree with me, stop here" somewhat arrogant?
If you perceive something that isn't physically there, how is it *not*
"in your brain"?

> Again and again and again... What evidence could someone give of his
> perception other than to say I could feel it?

Again and again and again, there are lots of test methods, such as
double-blind ABX, that can verify if you really can perceive a
difference.

> Please be honest and clear!!! You want me to say I could not heard any
> differences, but I can't if I want to be honest.

But the question you should ask yourself (unless you arrogantly believe
your senses are infallible) is "but how do I know the differences are
real?"

> Then You are judging about other people reliability, not evidences

Only to the extent that I think someone who accepts the existence of the
Loch Ness monster purely on the basis of somebody saying so, whoever the
person, is rather gullible. 

> Again, just You need to change the theories first than accept the
> evidence that some phenomenon could take place. 

First I need proof that our current theories don't work.

> Actual thoeries on digital sound reproduction (that don't really care if
> flac sound the same of wav at the analog output and why, by the way) are
> valid since someone will eventually demostrate something different, but
> this not means we could not accept and then investigate that some people
> claim to hear some difference and they are not crazy.

You are making the rather arrogant assumption that having conceptual
biases (we all have them) means people are "crazy". I am all for
investigating the claims - that is exactly what I am trying to advocate.
How do *you* suggest we investigate them?

> More and Again, I'm not here to demostrate anything other than state I -
> and others - could hear some difference, are this anecdotes and hearsay?

Yes - unless you provide some *verifiable* evidence.



"To try to judge the real from the false will always be hard. In this
fast-growing art of 'high fidelity' the quackery will bear a solid gilt
edge that will fool many people" - Paul W Klipsch, 1953
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