No-- they're invoked in different transactions.
Transactional activity maps directly to threads-- that is, the thread's id
is the transaction id (so to speak).
HTH,
JP
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Stephen Davidson [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> Sent: Martes, 18 de Septiembre de 2001 13:32
> To: Orion-Interest
> Subject: Re: Transaction question ?
>
>
> Eddie wrote:
> >
> > Hellu,
> >
> > Please some help on the following transaction scenario ?:
> >
> > I am receing some information through a HTTP post method.
> The servlet,
> > running as part of a J2EE application, calls a EJB method
> A. The EJB method
> > does some little processing. After this, it checks some
> conditions, and
> > might do some more processing in an other EJB method B
> depending on the
> > conditions (in the same method still). I want to call
> method B in a thread,
> > such that the client, performing the HTTP request, isn't
> waiting too long.
> > So I want to start method B in a thread, such that the
> initial EJB method A
> > returns. How does the transacion model looks like in this
> case and it is
> > wise to do it like this ? (My transaction attribute is set
> to Required and I
> > am using CMP).
> > I mean, is EJB method B, that runs in the thread executed in a new
> > transaction, as the initial EJB method A returns, or does
> it run in the same
> > db transaction as method A ?
> >
> > Eddie
>
> Hi Eddie.
>
> Launching threads in an EJB is against spec, as you may have noticed.
>
> What you may want to consider is using JMS.
>
> You would want to set up the EJB as a MessageDrivenBean, and then
> have the onMessage call method B.
>
> My understanding is that you can preserve the transaction/across
> through a message.
>
>
> -Steve
> --
> Stephen Davidson
> Java Consultant
> Delphi Consultants, LLC
> http://www.delphis.com
> Phone: 214-696-6224 x208
>
