Hi all, Trying to understand the logistic regression performed by glm (i.e. when family='binomial'), and I'm curious to know how it treats perfect success. That is, lets say I have the following summary data
x=c(1,2,3,4,5,6) y=c(0,.04,.26,.76,.94,1) w=c(100,100,100,100,100,100) where x is y is the probability of success at each value of x, calculated across w observations. When I use glm my.glm.obj=glm(y~x,family='binomial',weights=w) the regression comes out fine, but if I try what I understand to be the equivalent lm procedure (i.e. fitting a straight line to the logit transformed y values): my.lm.obj=lm(qlogis(y)~x,weights=w) I get an error because, of course, logit(1) = log(1/0) = log(Inf) = Inf (similarly, logit(0) = log(0/1) = log(0) = -Inf). I'd be very interested to see how glm deals with these extremes. Cheers, Mike -- Mike Lawrence http://artsweb.uwaterloo.ca/~m4lawren "The road to wisdom? Well, it's plain and simple to express: Err and err and err again, but less and less and less." - Piet Hein ______________________________________________ R-help@stat.math.ethz.ch mailing list https://stat.ethz.ch/mailman/listinfo/r-help PLEASE do read the posting guide http://www.R-project.org/posting-guide.html and provide commented, minimal, self-contained, reproducible code.