RE: Open source shareware?

2001-11-13 Thread David Davies

On Friday, 9 November 2001 11:50 AM David Johnson Wrote:

+AD4APg- On Thursday 08 November 2001 08:05 am, Forrest J. Cavalier III wrote:
+AD4APg- +AD4- Can someone point out the OSD violation of a shareware license such
as 
+AD4APg- +AD4- the following?  I realize it violates the spirit of the OSD, but I 
+AD4APg- +AD4- cannot find where it violates the +ACI-letter+ACI- of the OSD.  The OSD 
+is 
+AD4APg- +AD4- silent on +ACI-use+ACI- and I think this illustrates the problem.
+AD4APg- 
+AD4APg- The OSD may be quiet regarding use, but the law is not. Since the law
already 
+AD4APg- grants the user the right to use the software, the OSD does not need
to 
+AD4APg- specify that.

A) I'm not sure shareware as described by Forest truly does violate the
spirit of the OSD.
Isnt the OSI meant to be pragmatic ?  
If source code of programs is made public (open) then the OSD is meeting
its stated and original objective.
If we try to make it say more we are hijacking the stated intent.
Perhaps we need to create the Free Software Inititive, but I think
someone already did something like that.  You don't go to McDonalds to
eat Pizza.

NOTE :  If the OSI is +AF8-really+AF8- intended to to cover other issues then it
should clearly state so and thereafter avoid this periodic discussion.
Then we know they are now focused on serving Pizza and we can get our
hamburgers at Hungy Jacks instead.

B) The user has the right to use software sure but only software that
they OWN.
The term +ACI-OWN+ACI- may not be the appropriate word here as the relationship
between the User and the Software is far from being clear and no one law
applies throughout the world.
To OWN it they must first accept the terms of whatever licence (or
contract) is applied to it.
If the licence (contract) terms say I need to paint my cat red and that
is what I choose to accept then bad luck for the cat.
The key point is +ACI-choose to accept+ACI- i.e. I do or I don't and I am not
forced to accept it. Nobody is holding a gun to my head or a paintbrush
over the cat.

Regards,
David Davies
http://www.intadev.com


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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread John Cowan

Chris Gehlker wrote:


> I realize now that you were talking about owning the media.


Oh, there's no doubt that when I buy a book or an audio CD that I own
the medium.  But I also own *a copy* of the bits encoded on the medium.
(This reserves to the copyright owner the five copyright rights still.)
In the case of a book, the bits aren't really separable from the medium,
but on a CD I can do all sorts of things with the bits, as long as
I am not copying them (except as needed to make my CD player work).

> It brings up an
> interesting question. If I were to buy Win XP and let in register itself to
> my computer, is there some way to unregister it so I can sell it? (Assuming
> for the sake of argument that someone could be dissatisfied with and MS
> product.)


No, because (assuming the EULA is enforceable) you don't own even this
copy of the bits, so you can't do anything with them that the EULA
does not allow.  The presence or absence of techno-locks doesn't affect
the point.

(As to whether bypassing the lock is possible, I don't know; you might
also fall afoul of the DCMA.)

 

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Chris Gehlker

On 11/9/01 4:06 AM, "John Cowan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> Chris Gehlker scripsit:
> 
>> As someone with some code on Open Source disks I'm afraid I can't agree.
>> They may own the media. They may own the very generous rights that I granted
>> them in the license. They certainly own any improvements that they may have
>> made to the original program. But the original program is still mine.
> 
> You are still the *copyright owner*.  But the particular *copy* belongs to
> the purchaser of the disk -- after all, the ocpy is *on* the disk.
> It's like buying a book.  When you buy a book (copy), you own that
> copy, and you can use it for anything you want (except that you can't
> hang the pages of it in your art gallery, because that is public display).
> The copyright of the book of course remains with the author or publisher.

I realize now that you were talking about owning the media. It brings up an
interesting question. If I were to buy Win XP and let in register itself to
my computer, is there some way to unregister it so I can sell it? (Assuming
for the sake of argument that someone could be dissatisfied with and MS
product.)
-- 
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level with her smallest leaf, and take an insect view of its plain. -Henry
David Thoreau, naturalist and author (1817-1862)


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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread John Cowan

Angelo Schneider wrote:


> What is the Berne Convention?


http://www.law.cornell.edu/treaties/berne/overview.html

 
> I only know the term in conjunction with international treties to
> respect each others copy right laws.

Just so.  It also sets minimum standards; for example, the "moral right
to be known as the author" is protected in some countries (France) but
not others (in the U.S. it is only allowed to visual works, not to
textual or audio works).  But the right to control the making of
derivative works is everywhere protected under Article 12.
(There are no longer any important countries outside Berne.)

Of course, there are de minimis exceptions: you will not be sued for
making marginal notes in your copy of someone else's book, even though
book+notes is technically a derivative work, or translating the
book into Bulgarian for your own use.  But technically these are
violations, and cases have turned on them.

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Chloe Hoffman

This is not legal advice. No lawyer-client relationship is established. etc. 
etc.

>From: Angelo Schneider <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
>To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
>Subject: Re: Open source shareware?
>Date: Fri, 09 Nov 2001 12:28:12 +
>
>Hi all!
>
>Angelo Schneider David Johnson:
> >
> > > On Thursday 08 November 2001 08:05 am, Forrest J. Cavalier III wrote:
> > >
> > > As long as this permission notice and disclaimer are included, any
> > > person obtaining a copy of this software may distribute this
> > > software or derivatives.
> >
> > Where's my permission to create derivatives? I see that I can distribute
> > them, but there's nothing about being able to create them. This is a 
>crucial
> > distinction. As it now stands, I have the right to distribute 
>derivatives
> > created by OTHER people, but not to create them myself.
> >
>
>You do not need a permission to create derivates, IMHO.
>
>As I understand copyright law creating of a derived work is free for
>everyone.
>Only redistribution, public performance etc. is regulated.
>

This is plain wrong in all copyright laws that I am aware of, including 
Germany. The basic principle is that creation of a derivative work (or 
whatever the term is in other laws outside the U.S.) is an exclusive right 
of the copyright owner. That means someone needs either permission from the 
copyright owner (e.g., license) or rely on some other defense (e.g., fair 
use, de minimis, etc.).

>Angelo
>
>--
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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Chris Gehlker

On 11/9/01 2:28 AM, "Karsten M. Self" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> on Thu, Nov 08, 2001 at 08:37:21PM -0800, Ken Arromdee ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
> wrote:
>> On Thu, 8 Nov 2001, Karsten M. Self wrote:
>>> Clause 1:
>>> 
>>>"The license shall not require a royalty or other fee for such sale"
>>> 
>>> The terms for payment are interpreted by me to be "sale +time",
>>> which in the general case reduces to a required fee for sale or
>>> transfer.
>> 
>> Even in the general case, where the time period can be 0, it's not a
>> required fee for sale or transfer.  You can sell or transfer it to
>> anyone you want without a fee--the person you transfer it to just
>> can't use it.
> 
> First, I disagree with your reasoning.  I feel the terms applied
> constitute sale.
> 
> Second, use of a lawfully owned copy of software is not an exclusive
> right of the copyright holder, 17 USC 117(a).

I know this isn't a democracy but I still vote with Ken. The OSD says that
the author, Jane, can't demand a fee from Bill solely because Bill sells or
gives a copy of the software to Sally. On it's face, its about
"redistribution." It doesn't say anything about "fee for use" and it doesn't
ban initial sale.
-- 
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naturalist and author (1817-1862)

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread John Cowan

Angelo Schneider wrote:


> You do not need a permission to create derivates, IMHO.

> As I understand copyright law creating of a derived work is free for
> everyone.

Not so under the Berne Convention.

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Chris Gehlker

On 11/8/01 10:51 PM, "Chris D. Sloan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> As I understand it, John was not saying that the person who buys a CD
> with a copy of Linux (or whatever) now owns a copyright or anything
> like that, but that they own the copy of the data itself.
> 
> Similarly, I own many books.  Some of them I bought, some were given
> to me, it doesn't really matter how I got them.  My ownership of the
> book does not in anyway invalidate the rights of the copyright holder
> under the copyright law, nor does it grant me additional rights over
> those I received under copyright law.
> 
> Chris, if you are claiming that I don't own my copy of Linux on a CD
> that I bought, who do you believe does?  What distinction are you
> trying to draw?
> 
> I can understand that some companies try to "sell" you software
> without you actually ending up owning anything in the process (except
> possibly certain rights), but I don't think that most open source
> licenses work that way.

I think I understand the distinction that you are trying to make. I can sell
my book to the used book store. I suppose that I can make 20 copies and keep
them in a drawer as long as I don't try to sell them or give them away.

And I guess I have heard that the some shrink wrap licenses may try to
prevent you from selling your copy or making more than one backup. I don't
read them very carefully because, to the best of my knowledge, they aren't
binding where I live.

I guess John's statement was a little strong and I missed his point. There
may be a distinction in who owns the media.
-- 
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beginning to believe it. -Clarence Darrow, lawyer and author (1857-1938)


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RE: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Ken Brown

Open source licenses may be diffuse, but property ownership law is very
clear.  The law demands a "distinction" in the terms of any exchange in
property.  Specifically ownership is described in terms of a lease, loan,
rent, etc. but it has to be very specific.  Otherwise, regardless of Chris'
assertion; property ownership is not vague and amorphous.  If you give me
something, I either own it or I don't.

kb



-Original Message-
From: Chris D. Sloan [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Friday, November 09, 2001 12:51 AM
To: Chris Gehlker
Cc: Open Source
Subject: Re: Open source shareware?

As I understand it, John was not saying that the person who buys a CD
with a copy of Linux (or whatever) now owns a copyright or anything
like that, but that they own the copy of the data itself.

Similarly, I own many books.  Some of them I bought, some were given
to me, it doesn't really matter how I got them.  My ownership of the
book does not in anyway invalidate the rights of the copyright holder
under the copyright law, nor does it grant me additional rights over
those I received under copyright law.

Chris, if you are claiming that I don't own my copy of Linux on a CD
that I bought, who do you believe does?  What distinction are you
trying to draw?

I can understand that some companies try to "sell" you software
without you actually ending up owning anything in the process (except
possibly certain rights), but I don't think that most open source
licenses work that way.

Chris

On Thu, Nov 08, 2001 at 07:32:12PM -0700, Chris Gehlker wrote:
> On 11/8/01 3:50 PM, "John Cowan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> > Under open-source licenses, you do own your copy.  For those
> > of you who seek novel experiences, go and buy a CD-ROM of a
> > Linux or BSD distro; you will have, for perhaps the first
> > time, bought software.
>
> As someone with some code on Open Source disks I'm afraid I can't agree.
> They may own the media. They may own the very generous rights that I
granted
> them in the license. They certainly own any improvements that they may
have
> made to the original program. But the original program is still mine.
>
> I never sold software and I never agreed that purchasers of a CD would get
> any rights beyond what were explicitly stated in the license.
>
> Now for the two programs that I released under the BSD or MIT license that
> may be a distinction that doesn't make a difference, but for all the rest
> there is a real difference. I'm the only one who can take the project
> private.
> --
> C++: The power, elegance and simplicity of a hand grenade.
>
> --
> license-discuss archive is at http://crynwr.com/cgi-bin/ezmlm-cgi?3


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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Angelo Schneider

Hi all!

Angelo Schneider David Johnson:
> 
> > On Thursday 08 November 2001 08:05 am, Forrest J. Cavalier III wrote:
> > 
> > As long as this permission notice and disclaimer are included, any
> > person obtaining a copy of this software may distribute this
> > software or derivatives.
> 
> Where's my permission to create derivatives? I see that I can distribute
> them, but there's nothing about being able to create them. This is a crucial
> distinction. As it now stands, I have the right to distribute derivatives
> created by OTHER people, but not to create them myself.
> 

You do not need a permission to create derivates, IMHO.

As I understand copyright law creating of a derived work is free for
everyone.
Only redistribution, public performance etc. is regulated.

Angelo

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RE: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread Ken Brown

Karsten,

I you lost me on this.  Why does time determine the terms of a sale?

Ken Brown

-Original Message-
From: Karsten M. Self [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Friday, November 09, 2001 4:29 AM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: Open source shareware?

on Thu, Nov 08, 2001 at 08:37:21PM -0800, Ken Arromdee ([EMAIL PROTECTED])
wrote:
> On Thu, 8 Nov 2001, Karsten M. Self wrote:
> > Clause 1:
> >
> >"The license shall not require a royalty or other fee for such sale"
> >
> > The terms for payment are interpreted by me to be "sale +time",
> > which in the general case reduces to a required fee for sale or
> > transfer.
>
> Even in the general case, where the time period can be 0, it's not a
> required fee for sale or transfer.  You can sell or transfer it to
> anyone you want without a fee--the person you transfer it to just
> can't use it.

First, I disagree with your reasoning.  I feel the terms applied
constitute sale.

Second, use of a lawfully owned copy of software is not an exclusive
right of the copyright holder, 17 USC 117(a).

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-09 Thread John Cowan

Chris Gehlker scripsit:

> As someone with some code on Open Source disks I'm afraid I can't agree.
> They may own the media. They may own the very generous rights that I granted
> them in the license. They certainly own any improvements that they may have
> made to the original program. But the original program is still mine.

You are still the *copyright owner*.  But the particular *copy* belongs to
the purchaser of the disk -- after all, the ocpy is *on* the disk.
It's like buying a book.  When you buy a book (copy), you own that
copy, and you can use it for anything you want (except that you can't
hang the pages of it in your art gallery, because that is public display).
The copyright of the book of course remains with the author or publisher.

-- 
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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread David Johnson

On Thursday 08 November 2001 11:16 pm, David Davies wrote:

> To OWN it they must first accept the terms of whatever licence (or
> contract) is applied to it.

Not at all. This is a myth promulgated by proprietary software companies. If 
I agree to the license, then I have to follow the license. But if I don't 
agree to it I can operate under copyright law. And copyright law says I can 
use the software.

Under the US Commerical Code, if I go to a retail store, pay cash for an 
item, and receive a *sales* receipt, all in a legal manner, then I legally 
own that product. That includes the CD with Windows on it. I haven't leased 
or rented it. I don't own the rights to Windows, but I certainly own one 
particular copy of it, and the says I can legally use that copy.

If Microsoft doesn't like it then they can stop offerering it for sale at 
retail stores.

In the case of downloadable shareware the situation is trickier since I 
haven't purchased it. But the copy in my possession is still a legal copy. I 
didn't have to agree to anything to obtain it. Just because the author says I 
have to do something does not make it so.

And what if I do pay that $20 fee? I have just been given the right to 
distribute it to third parties, and third parties are not bound by the 
agreement I made with the author.

-- 
David Johnson
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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread Chris D. Sloan

As I understand it, John was not saying that the person who buys a CD
with a copy of Linux (or whatever) now owns a copyright or anything
like that, but that they own the copy of the data itself.

Similarly, I own many books.  Some of them I bought, some were given
to me, it doesn't really matter how I got them.  My ownership of the
book does not in anyway invalidate the rights of the copyright holder
under the copyright law, nor does it grant me additional rights over
those I received under copyright law.

Chris, if you are claiming that I don't own my copy of Linux on a CD
that I bought, who do you believe does?  What distinction are you
trying to draw?

I can understand that some companies try to "sell" you software
without you actually ending up owning anything in the process (except
possibly certain rights), but I don't think that most open source
licenses work that way.

Chris

On Thu, Nov 08, 2001 at 07:32:12PM -0700, Chris Gehlker wrote:
> On 11/8/01 3:50 PM, "John Cowan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> 
> > Under open-source licenses, you do own your copy.  For those
> > of you who seek novel experiences, go and buy a CD-ROM of a
> > Linux or BSD distro; you will have, for perhaps the first
> > time, bought software.
> 
> As someone with some code on Open Source disks I'm afraid I can't agree.
> They may own the media. They may own the very generous rights that I granted
> them in the license. They certainly own any improvements that they may have
> made to the original program. But the original program is still mine.
> 
> I never sold software and I never agreed that purchasers of a CD would get
> any rights beyond what were explicitly stated in the license.
> 
> Now for the two programs that I released under the BSD or MIT license that
> may be a distinction that doesn't make a difference, but for all the rest
> there is a real difference. I'm the only one who can take the project
> private.
> -- 
> C++: The power, elegance and simplicity of a hand grenade.
> 
> --
> license-discuss archive is at http://crynwr.com/cgi-bin/ezmlm-cgi?3


-- 
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[EMAIL PROTECTED]
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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread Ken Arromdee

On Thu, 8 Nov 2001, Karsten M. Self wrote:
> Clause 1:
> 
>"The license shall not require a royalty or other fee for such sale"
> 
> The terms for payment are interpreted by me to be "sale +time", which in
> the general case reduces to a required fee for sale or transfer.

Even in the general case, where the time period can be 0, it's not a required
fee for sale or transfer.  You can sell or transfer it to anyone you want
without a fee--the person you transfer it to just can't use it.

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread David Johnson

On Thursday 08 November 2001 08:05 am, Forrest J. Cavalier III wrote:
> Can someone point out the OSD violation of a shareware
> license such as the following?  I realize it violates
> the spirit of the OSD, but I cannot find where it violates
> the "letter" of the OSD.  The OSD is silent on "use" and
> I think this illustrates the problem.

The OSD may be quiet regarding use, but the law is not. Since the law already 
grants the user the right to use the software, the OSD does not need to 
specify that.

> As long as this permission notice and disclaimer are included, any
> person obtaining a copy of this software may distribute this
> software or derivatives.

Where's my permission to create derivatives? I see that I can distribute 
them, but there's nothing about being able to create them. This is a crucial 
distinction. As it now stands, I have the right to distribute derivatives 
created by OTHER people, but not to create them myself.

> If you decide to run the software after a 30 day evaluation period,
> you must pay a fee of $20 to 

Brrzzztt! Look at clause 7. You've paid the $20 bucks and now distribute the 
software to your friend. Your friend must receive the same rights that you 
do, including the right to not having to pay the fee anymore. 

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread Chris Gehlker

On 11/8/01 3:50 PM, "John Cowan" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> Under open-source licenses, you do own your copy.  For those
> of you who seek novel experiences, go and buy a CD-ROM of a
> Linux or BSD distro; you will have, for perhaps the first
> time, bought software.

As someone with some code on Open Source disks I'm afraid I can't agree.
They may own the media. They may own the very generous rights that I granted
them in the license. They certainly own any improvements that they may have
made to the original program. But the original program is still mine.

I never sold software and I never agreed that purchasers of a CD would get
any rights beyond what were explicitly stated in the license.

Now for the two programs that I released under the BSD or MIT license that
may be a distinction that doesn't make a difference, but for all the rest
there is a real difference. I'm the only one who can take the project
private.
-- 
C++: The power, elegance and simplicity of a hand grenade.

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread John Cowan

Forrest J. Cavalier III wrote:


> But back to the shareware question.  From that ruling there is
> a footnote that confuses me.
> 
>5. Since MAI licensed its software, the Peak customers do
>   not qualify as "owners" of the software and are not
>   eligible for protection under 117.
> 
> What does that mean?  (I can understand it if the wording
> was "Peak does not qualify as owner."  But this says that
> Peak's customers, who had a valid license from MAI, were
> STILL not owners.)  Is this a typographical error?  Or
> does it really mean that when you have a licensed copy of
> software, you do not have a copy that you own.


Most EULA-type closed source licenses, including MAI's,
tell you that you don't own the software and have only licensed the
right to use it. Without the UCITA, this may or may not be binding: the
courts have disagreed.  But assuming that MAI's license was valid,
neither Peak nor Peak's customers owned anything at all;
the customers had a bare right-to-use, and Peak had squat.

Under open-source licenses, you do own your copy.  For those
of you who seek novel experiences, go and buy a CD-ROM of a
Linux or BSD distro; you will have, for perhaps the first
time, bought software.


>You agree that we own all copies, and you may not copy,
>modify, sublicense, or distribute the Program except
>as expressly provided under this License.  You are not
>required to accept this License, since you have not signed
>it.  However, nothing else grants you permission to modify or
>distribute the Program or its derivative works.

Who knows what effect that would have?

IANAL, TINLA.

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread Rod Dixon

The theory is that as a licensee, you are NOT an owner. Owners buy
products, they do not license, according to the theory. At issue is how
one might characterize the transaction involving the distribution of
software: is it a sale (which means the first sale doctrine might apply)
or is it a license (which might mean ostensibly that the licensor may
"withhold" application of the first sale doctrine).

Rod Dixon


On Thu, 8 Nov 2001, Forrest J. Cavalier III wrote:

> John Cowan wrote:
> >
> > USC 117 says (in part):
> >
> > # [I]t is not an infringement for the owner of a copy of a computer
> > # program to make or authorize the making of another copy or adaptation
> > # of that computer program provided [...] that such a new copy or
> > # adaptation is created as an essential step in the utilization of the
> > # computer program in conjunction with a machine and that it is used in
> > # no other manner [...].
> >
> > > The fact that a
> > > copyright holder can control his or her work at the level of a RAM copy
> > > may be big trouble for us. Ostensibly, one can hardly "use' software
> > > without the author's permission,
> >
> >
> > On the contrary.  The above says that you can copy the program if 1)
> > you own a copy, 2) you can't use it without copying it, 3) you don't use
> > the copy in any other way.
>
> I read the circuit court ruling "MAI SYSTEMS CORP VS PEAK COMPUTER,
> INC" from this URL,
>http://www.law.cornell.edu/copyright/cases/991_F2d_511.htm
>
> Frustrating reading, and frustrating conclusions.  What I take
> from it is that if anyone (besides you) services your computer, and
> they cannot run your copy of an operating system or other
> software to check something for you.
>
> But back to the shareware question.  From that ruling there is
> a footnote that confuses me.
>
>5. Since MAI licensed its software, the Peak customers do
>   not qualify as "owners" of the software and are not
>   eligible for protection under 117.
>
> What does that mean?  (I can understand it if the wording
> was "Peak does not qualify as owner."  But this says that
> Peak's customers, who had a valid license from MAI, were
> STILL not owners.)  Is this a typographical error?  Or
> does it really mean that when you have a licensed copy of
> software, you do not have a copy that you own.
>
> Under what circumstances am I "owner of a copy" under
> US Copyright Act #117?  Am I owner of a copy even if
> the license says:
>You agree that we own all copies, and you may not copy,
>modify, sublicense, or distribute the Program except
>as expressly provided under this License.  You are not
>required to accept this License, since you have not signed
>it.  However, nothing else grants you permission to modify or
>distribute the Program or its derivative works.
>
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>

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Re: Open source shareware?

2001-11-08 Thread John Cowan

Chris Gehlker wrote:


> Perhaps a little more realistically, he could say "I have the source and
> object code to a GPLed Quake beater game on this zip disk." He could even
> let game reviewers play the game on his machine to prove it. "As soon as
> 10,000 fanatic gamers chip in $1.00 through PayPal, I'll hand the disk to
> their representative."


Ah yes, the Busker Protocol.  Of course you need an escrow agent, and
if someone wants to contribute more than $1, no problem.
See http://www.counterpane.com/street_performer.html .

-- 
Not to perambulate || John Cowan <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
the corridors   || http://www.reutershealth.com
during the hours of repose || http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
in the boots of ascension.  \\ Sign in Austrian ski-resort hotel

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