I remember some time ago saying something about 'Abdu'l-Baha using the KJV,
and then being corrected by someone. But now that I think about that, this
leads me to ask: why is the KJV quoted extensively throughout SAQ? Did
'Abdu'l-Baha just so happen to say what in Persian what would translate
In a message dated 5/10/2004 8:39:14 PM Eastern Daylight Time, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
I remember some time ago saying something about 'Abdu'l-Baha using the KJV,
and then being corrected by someone. But now that I think about that, this
leads me to ask: why is the KJV quoted extensively
