On Nov 17, 2010, at 9:22 PM, joseph berg wrote: > As the commodification of art increases,
Is art in fact being "commodified," and if so, how can you measure it in order to say it is increasing? This is an unsubstantiated assertion. > isn't there a shift where the creative needs of the artist become subservient to what ultimately becomes the whims of the consumers/audience? Are you asserting that there is such a shift? Then say so, rather than insinuating it with a negative question. Where is this shift occurring? What are "creative needs of the artist"? How do the artist's "needs" become "subservient" to the "whims" of an abstract collective entity? | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | | Michael Brady
