On Sat, 10 Feb 2007 15:27:23 -0500, Jef Allbright <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
wrote:
On the contrary, a subjectivist understands that even to pose a
question, one must have some prior.
That observation does not speak to the question at hand concerning the
principle of indifference.
The principle of indifference is seen as a 'logical principle' only under
objective bayesianism. Under subjective bayesianism it is at most a
heuristic device.
Subjectivists know better than to believe they are bound by some
'universal principle of logic' (to use your term) to invoke the principle
of indifference under conditions of total ignorance about the true state
of nature, which is of course the only condition under which it can be
invoked.
You were wrong to suggest earlier that the principle of indifference can
be derived from De Finetti coherence. The axioms of probability can be
derived from coherence but the principle of indifference is certainly not
one of them.
You're also confusing "zero" with "nothing."
Nope.
-gts
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