The sample variance (assuming that you use the "n-1" divisor) is an unbiased estimator of the population variance provided you use random sampling. Note the "ing" on the word sampling, it is not quite correct to talk about "random samples" or "independent samples". or at least it may be mis-leading. Random sampling pertains to how the data is collected, not the end result.

Note moreover that one can always compute a sample variance for a given data set but this does not show that the random variable or random function has a finite variance.

The sample variance (even when sampling from a normal population) is relatively speaking more variable as an estimator of the variance than the sample mean is as an estimator of the population mean. The sampling distribution in this restricted case is chi-square, the chi-square distribution has a "fat" tail (as contrasted with a normal distribution).

If correctly (or maybe you would want to say "adequately" ) estimated, the sill of a second order stationary random function would be the variance of the random function. In general, the sample variance will not estimate the sill (because you are not using random sampling).

Donald Myers
http://www.u.arizona.edu/~donaldm

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