I think it should be 2^n -1

Explanation
We can visualize it as n balls are placed and we have to place some dividers
(max=n) in betweek to divide them into groups.

If we choose no divider its nC0 , but we dont have to include it
With 1 divider its nC1
and so on..
So the total no. of ways will be
(nC0+nC1+nC2..........nCn)-nC0= 2^n-1

Regards,
Puneet

On Wed, Aug 17, 2011 at 4:05 PM, Rohit Srivastava <access2ro...@gmail.com>wrote:

> +1 to nitin
>
>
> On Wed, Aug 17, 2011 at 2:48 PM, Vijay Kansal <vijaykans...@gmail.com>wrote:
>
>> my bad 2^(n-1)...
>>
>> On Aug 17, 2:17 pm, Vijay Kansal <vijaykans...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> > @nitin it must be 2^n i think
>> >
>> > On Aug 17, 3:48 am, Bharat Kul Ratan <bharat.kra...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> > > It might be useful:
>> http://www.artofproblemsolving.com/Wiki/index.php/Partition_%28combin...
>>
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Puneet Goyal
Student of B. Tech. III Year (Software Engineering)
Delhi Technological University, Delhi
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