--- Grey Thomas <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
"But I wonder if there are any small homeowner
associations, or service clubs, or any group, who
actually have used this method for allocating the
group budget?...I have this strong feeling the answer
is no,...not even any group of economists [do
that]...."

Why wouldn't economists adopt a theoretically superior
method?  In regards to voting procedure, I've read
about physics organizations who, after learning about
the deficiencies of majority voting, adopt other
voting schemes like approval voting.  Why wouldn't
economists act similarly?

Possible reason: Physics is an experiment oriented
persuit, whereas economics is theory oriented?

Curiously your,
jsh

=====
"...for no one admits that he incurs an obligation to another merely because that 
other has done him no wrong."
-Machiavelli, Discourses on Livy, Discourse 16.

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