I don't get it You have B extending A. If you had
public B getB() ; Then I would expect you to get B and A in the WSDL. But if you have public A getA() ; There is no reference of B, and no need for B in the public interface. It is B that extends A. Not A extends B. A does not depend on B. If the public interface references only A, nobody needs to care about B. And if you have public A[] getA2() ; Then again, you do not require any definition of B in the WSDL. Or have I read it wrong? -Dino -----Original Message----- From: Nigel Jewell [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] Sent: Monday, April 18, 2005 8:42 AM To: axis-user@ws.apache.org Subject: BeanMapping and Subclasses Hi all, I have a question regarding beanmapping, subclasses and arrays. If I have: class A class B extends A beanmapping for A and B The method: public A getA(); creates definitions for A and B in the WSDL - as required. If I have a method: public A[] getA(); only definitions for A are created in the WSDL. Am I missing something? -- Nige. URL: http://www.matrix-data.co.uk
