On 7/19/05, Susan Maneck <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> I think botht of them are actually still more
> concrete, more literally true, more supportable than the Bahai claims
> about "I am the prophets".
 
> Dear Gilberto,
 
> I don't see the difference. While Muslims may have associated the verses
> regarding the Paraclete with Muhammad the word "Ahmad" does not appear
> there.

Just as Jesus (as)  didn't really say "Let he who is without sin cast
the first stone" and Muhammad (Saaws) didn't really say "There is no
god but God". In other words, because we are talking about two
different languages. But the meaning of "Ahmad" is the same as the
meaning "Pericletos" (praised) and in any case Jesus probably spoke in
Aramaic anyway.

So apart from the fact that different languages are involved. Jesus
really did literally say that Ahmad would come after him.

(And Bahai writings actually agree about this point) 

http://reference.bahai.org/en/t/se/LANZ/lanz-32.html

>From Shoghi Effendi
No. 7. References in the Bible to "Mt. Paran" and "Paraclete" refer to
Muhammad's Revelation.





http://www.entrybytroops.org/revelation10.html

The Christians of today are like the Jews who didn't recognize Jesus
as their Messiah, and they are like the Christians of the past who
didn't recognize Muhammad as the Comforter (Paraclete) of John 14. The
original word was "Ahmad" and it was translated as "comforter." This
was a prophecy for Muhammad. Likewise, the Muslims didn't recognize
the Bab and Baha'u'llah, because of the indoctrination of their
clergy.


Peace

Gilberto


 
 
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