Dear Susan,
So If Muslims are misunderstanding this issue, what do *you* think the
Gospel is?
On 10/17/05, Susan Maneck <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> > "What I mean is that the Bahai writings speak of "the Gospel" as a
> > single revelation given to Jesus."
> > Can you show us some examples of what you are talking about?
> > To my knowledge they don't. That is not to say they don't use the word
> > "Gospel" in the singular but I don't think they use it in manner you
> > suggest.
>
> Gleanings From the Writings of Bahá'u'lláh Pages 264-270
> Dear Gilberto,
> The passage you cite is from the Iqan, the same book which denies the notion
> of 'corruption' of the Gospel.
Gilberto:
I don't think the term "corruption" as you are using it, is the same
as "corruption" as I'm using it. So I think we are talking past each
other in a fruitless kind of way.
Susan:
> But this passage merely affirms that the
> Gospel is the Word of God in Jesus' time, not that it is 'single revelation
> given to Jesus.'
And the difference is?
> "There is passage in the Iqan which you are
> probably refering to when you say Bahaullah rejected the corruption of
> the Bible:
>
> [begin quote[
> 99 We have also heard a number of the foolish of the earth assert that
> the genuine text of the heavenly Gospel doth not exist amongst the
> Christians,
> <snip>
> And I would point out a couple of things. Firstly, the above passage
> criticizes the idea that the Gospel does not exist. It doesn't say one
> thing one way or another on the question of whether it exists in some
> altered or flawed form."
>
> Context, Gilberto. That passages follows Baha'u'llah's extensive quotations
> from the NT. He is justifying His usage of that text to demonstrate that
> Muslims have done the same thing they accuse Jews and Christians of doing.
> But I would agree He is not denying the results of higher criticism. But He
> *is* rejecting the usual Muslim understanding of the corruption of the
> Bible.
And what do you think that "usual understanding is"? I've said in
other places that within the parameters found in the Quran and sunnah
there is a certain amount of variation possible in terms of how to
understand this issue. So don't need to defend a straw dog "usual
Muslim understanding" that you are trying to construct.
>
> "But the four Biblical gospels WEREN'T WRITTEN UNTIL AFTER JESUS."
> Yes, obviously Baha'u'llah was *not* thinking of a literal book written by
> Jesus. He had in mind the "Good News" [gospel] which is contained in the NT.
That's what I've been saying for a while. I never said that the Gospel
was written by Jesus. And I've been saying all along that the Gospel
is contained in, reflected in the NT without being identical to it.
Peace
Gilberto
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