on 3/10/02 2:00 am, Robert Seeberger at [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote: >> We obviously use different definitions in the Old World. >> > > Nope, you use more sophistry in the old world. > Your definition of "anti-semite" is virtually the same as ours. > Yet you *choose* to add definitions of other terms into the mix in order to > justify your prejudices.
It seems more likely you choose to remove them. > (Those prejudices are not necessarily anti-semitism BTW) > You will notice that no one has brought forth a definition that defines > "anti-semite" as a hater of middle eastern people. Why not use a different term then? > That is because the term "anti-semite" has a specific definition that is > derived, not from dictionary use, but from language use over a very long > period of time. > You just dont see the term used in any other way. I already quoted a dictionary. -- William T Goodall [EMAIL PROTECTED] http://www.wtgab.demon.co.uk/ _______________________________________________ http://www.mccmedia.com/mailman/listinfo/brin-l
