From: "John D. Giorgis" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
<Snip>
> First, the question is: "Should marriage be redefined to include homosexual > unions as well as heterosexual unions?" And indeed, given the current > judicial environment, the question can be taken one step further "Does our > civilization have a moral responsibility to so redefine marriages, > *immediately?*" > > In my mind, however, the questions can be further redefined to be: "Should > our civilization incentivse homosexual unions by redefining marriage to > include such unions?" And also, "Does our civilization have a moral > obligation to immediately incentivise homosexual unions by so redefining > marriages *immediately.*?" > > I come down very firmly against the latter questions, and also fairly > firmly aginst the former question as well.
The problem is that your questions are wrong. You ask about *moral* obligations. Moral obligations are subjective, and by virtue of that fact, not the correct standard to apply as there is clearly massive disagreement on that. The real question is: Are we *legally* obligated to do those things? Under the standard of equal protection under the law, Yes, we are obligated to do so.
Michael Harney
That's interesting. Why are we *legally* required to discriminate based on race or gender then?
Kevin T. - VRWC What's good for the goose is better than what the gander gets
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