At Tue, 5 Apr 2011 08:12:36 -0400,
James Ward wrote:
> 
> Mathematically, they're equivalent, but what's the point of defining z
> at all? It's only used in that one sin. It looks like the author:

Hi.  I'm not sure why it was written that way, but I guess there might
have been a reason so I'm going to leave it for now, purely on the
basis of "if it ain't broke don't fix it"!



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