Technically, yes, this does work. If you have a total island of OSPF that will never be inter-area, you can actually make it any area number you want. I believe Marko even had some blog posts at some point showing that in very specific cases (like when there is a single ABR connected to all areas) you can even manage to do multi-area without an Area 0, but that is definitely not best practice.
Personally, any time I have islands of OSPF (for example remote sites that need an IGP for the site and speak to MPLS SP via BGP), I would just use Area 0. Anything else is kind of short-sighted in my opinion because if you ever did have to chop that network up into areas it will be really painful moving your "area 51" backbone to be "area 0" so that OSPF IA actually works. Hope that helps! Best, Bob CCIE #38296 Blog: HerdingPackets.net On Mon, Mar 3, 2014 at 4:16 PM, freddy morales <[email protected]>wrote: > Hi, > > This is probably a dumb question but I am confused.. can you have just one > ospf area configured, for example only area 1? In some scenarios, like a > remote site, there is no need for an area 0 right? > _______________________________________________ > Free CCIE R&S, Collaboration, Data Center, Wireless & Security Videos :: > > iPexpert on YouTube: www.youtube.com/ipexpertinc > _______________________________________________ Free CCIE R&S, Collaboration, Data Center, Wireless & Security Videos :: iPexpert on YouTube: www.youtube.com/ipexpertinc
