OK, First off if this is a bad idea just say so and move on, I don't want to start a giant flame war :) Also forgive me for this being a little long winded.
Working with a customer of mine who is actually doing a very nice switching replacement. All switches are Cisco 3750X or Cisco 3560X and will be supporting multiple vlans. Currently they have about 8 locations which are point to point T1 connected, and about 6 more that are connected on a private fiber ring. Eventually they will all be on a private fiber ring, and this will all be a moot point, but I'm looking for the "keep it pretty until its complete" solution right now. Because of the quantity of vlans being added, and the fact that it will be customer managed, I would like to force a single VTP domain across all locations, and have a single primary server running under vtp3. This will prevent they user from adding conflicting vlans at different sites and having to pay me to come fix it for a week before they can turn up fiber. My questions is as follows. Within Location A, I have a Cisco 3750X stack connected to a cisco 2921 router. This router has 3 dual port T1 wic's. Example Location B site has a Cisco 3750X stack connected to a Cisco 2901 router with a single T1 wic. On Location A switch I create the following Interface vlan 801 Ip address 172.16.255.1 255.255.255.252 Int gi 1/0/1 Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan 801 Switchport trunk native vlan 801 Then connect gi 1/0/1 to gi0/0 on the Location A2921 router and configure on the router as follows. Int gi 0/0 No ip address Int gi 0/0.801 No ip route cache Bridge-group 1 Int ser 0/0/0 No ip address Bridge-group 1 Int bvi1 No ip address Bridge 1 protocol ieee Then connect that Location A 2921 ser 0/0/0 to Location B 2901 ser 0/0/0 and apply this configuration to the 2901 Int gi 0/0 No ip address Int gi 0/0.801 No ip route cache Bridge group 1 Int ser 0/0/0 No ip address Bridge-group 1 Int bvi 1 No ip address Bridge 1 protocol ieee >From Gi 0/0 on this router connect to gi 1/0/1 on the cisco 3750X stack at >location B with the following configuration. Interface vlan 801 Ip address 172.16.255.2 255.255.255.252 Int gi 1/0/1 Switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan 801 Switchport trunk native vlan 801 This "should" in my mind leave the point to point t1 links working correctly for now, allow VTP to continue functioning and pass information across the bridged point to point t1 until these links are replaced with the final fiber links between sites (eta 6-10months), and prevent the user from mangling the nice pretty vlan configuration before it's a single mesh network. Also allowing me to create multiple bridge to vlan subinterface networks to handle the multiple physical point to point circuits flowing on this single router. Thoughts? Thanks in advance! Blake _______________________________________________ cisco-nsp mailing list cisco-nsp@puck.nether.net https://puck.nether.net/mailman/listinfo/cisco-nsp archive at http://puck.nether.net/pipermail/cisco-nsp/