Only way I can think of to tie different parts of the same ip subnet
together in disparate locations (routers) is through IRB. Here's a
sample config:
-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-
version 11.2
!
hostname BVI1
!
ip subnet-zero
!
interface Hssi0
no ip address
no logging event subif-link-status
bridge-group 1
!
interface FastEthernet0
description connected to Ames Home Office LAN
no ip address
no logging event subif-link-status
bridge-group 1
!
interface BVI1
description Rocky Hill-to-Southbury IRB Connection (Southbury)
ip address 172.16.8.110 255.255.0.0
no logging event subif-link-status
!
router eigrp 1
network 172.16.0.0
!
ip classless
!
bridge irb
bridge 1 protocol ieee
bridge 1 route ip
!
-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-;-
HTH
Rainman
I have two LAN connected by dedicated line and two cisco 2611 routers
.Brief config can be seen below .
router1#
inter s0/0
ip address 10.20.1.1/24
inter e0/0
ip address 10.10.10.21/24
ip route 10.10.12.0 255.255.255.0 10.20.1.2
router2#
inter s0/0
ip address 10.20.1.2/24
inter e0/0
ip add 10.10.12.21
ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.20.1.1
Can I make the two lan be in the same subnet by bridging , how can I do
that ,is there any effects ?
___________________________________
UPDATED Posting Guidelines: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/guide.html
FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com
Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
