G-day 'groupstudy.cisco' newsgroup. Here is a questions I hope you folks
can answer.
Here is a leg of our network in beautiful ASCII art:
7206(1)======7206(2)======12012
The 12012 is running E/I-BGP and I want to peer with the 7206(1) router. I
do not want to run IBGP and a RR on 7206(2) until I upgrade the memory (only
32 megs right now) and only have IGP's on it at the moment.
Does IBGP set the TTL to 1 like EBGP? Or does it simply use the IGP to
route accordingly? Since there is no 'ibgp-multihop #' command I am hoping
it uses the IGP to route with a higher TTL.
I am setting this up now and may actually answer my own question in a matter
of minutes but if someone can expand on this it would be appreciated. I
will post what happens.
Regards,
Julian
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