Does this solution make sense?
AS 2010 R2
eBGP eBGP
AS 2001 R5 -------iBGP------- R4
eBGP
AS 5 R1
R1 has an eBGP link to R5
R5 and R4 each have an eBGP link to R2
the requirement is for traffic from R1 ( AS5) to R2 ( AS2010 ) to
specifically travel from R1 to R5 to R3 to R2.
likewise, traffic from AS 2010 to AS 5 must travel from R2 to R3 to R5 to R1
My answer to the second requirement was to a) configure R2 to place a higher
weight for incoming routes from R3 to influence the path or b) send a high
MED to R1 from R3. Both ways appear to accomplish what I need to according
to my trace routes.
My answer to the first was to set the local preference via the neighbor
statement on both of the AS 2001 routers.
Then I got to wondering about the reality of this. On the OSPF side, there
is only one way for traffic to get from R1 to R2, and that is by way of the
instructed path.So in effect, it doe not matter what happens on the BGP
side.
Anyone familiar with the Solie practice labs have a comment?
--
TANSTAAFL
"there ain't no such thing as a free lunch"
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