Hello all, If a router has its interfaces in Area 1 and Area 2 and no Area 0, is it
still considered to be an ABR OR strictly, one of the interfaces has to be in Area 0 to be an ABR? Thanks, Rajesh Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=72624&t=72624 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
