The costs are equally set between both routers.  I think this might be
one of the idiosyncrasies with virtual links, as a sh ip ospf
virtual-links shows that the outbound ospf interface is serial 0.  I
circumvented the problem by extending my area 0 out to this site, where
I was able to make a virtual link between 2 ethernet interfaces. Thanks
for your help

Craig

-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]On Behalf Of
Shaw, Winston Mr.
Sent: Monday, November 27, 2000 2:26 PM
To: Craig Johnson; '[EMAIL PROTECTED]'
Subject: RE: Virtual-link load balancing


Interesting situation. It might be that the "virtual link" is like a
tunnel
and gets a different "cost" although it is a T1 line. Have you already
tried
cost adjustments ? to bring the other T1's to the same level as the
virtual
T1. As long as they are equal in cost there should be load balancing. If
you
use "no ospf auto-cost determination" and then explicitly assign the
same
cost to all the lines. Maybe ??? just maybe the T1's are at cost 64 and
the
tunnel is at a different level.

Winston.

-----Original Message-----
From: Craig Johnson [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Monday, November 27, 2000 5:08 PM
To: '[EMAIL PROTECTED]'
Subject: Virtual-link load balancing


I'm at the end of my rope on this one, so I was wondering if anyone knew
the answer.  I have a virtual link configured between area 0 going
through area 5, for backup purposes.  Well, our primary link failed and
we are routing over this virtual link.  Each of these routers has 3 T1's
going from them to area 5.  Unfortunately, all virtual-link traffic is
traversing over serial 0, and not load balancing across the other T1's.
Normal inter-area traffic is load balancing fine, but I have 1 T1 that
is heavily overloaded with the other 2 light.  Any ideas?

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