I am kind of just thinking out loud here, but if someone could confirm that
I'm right, I would appreciate it.
Jeff Doyle just joined me for lunch again as usual - his book that is, and
there was an example in the beginning of the RIPv2 chapter where 3 routers
(let's call them A, B and C) were connected on the same network, and a
second network was connected to router C. Router A and B was setup with
RIPv2 and router B and C with BGP.
Since C are running only BGP and A only RIPv2, no routing information would
be sent from C directly to A and visa versa.
Router B however would send information about the second network connected
to router C to A, and let A know that it should send packets destined for
the second network to router C.
Hey, wait a minute I thought, router A can't send to router C !!!! - But
then I thought about it again, and saw that I was wrong in my first
assumption. Of course A can send to C, they just don't exchange routing
information directly to each other.
Am I right?
Thanks for any comments on this,
Ole
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Ole Drews Jensen
Systems Network Manager
CCNA, MCSE, MCP+I
RWR Enterprises, Inc.
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
http://www.CiscoKing.com
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NEED A JOB ???
http://www.oledrews.com/job
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