Hi;
Due to the mail system incompatiable, the message was truncated,
I will provide more information to let you guys have more information.
Area 0 is formed by Router A and Router B
Area 1 is formed by Router B and Router C
Area 4 is formed by Router C only.
Router C set up a virtual link with Router A.
The pesron who set up the topology said that it was a valid topoloy without
authenication
But I am not agree, because the topology violate the OSPF area rule, virtual
link rule, this toplogy
will not function as expected no matter authenication or not.
For I am not a OSPF expert, I would like to hear any advice, suggestion,
discussion.
Any comment will be welcome.
TIA
Vincent Chong
""Vincent Chong"" Hi;
>
> The following scenario
>
>
> [RouteA area0][area0 RouterB area1] RouterC area4]
> |
> |
> |
> |
> |______________Virtual link_______________________|
>
> Does this topology is valid in OSPF?
>
> I belive that the configuration has topology error, but the owener
> said it was
> working fine without authenication.
>
> For I am not familiar with Virtual link, ay comment are welcome?
>
> Best Rgds;
> Vincent Chong
> FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
> Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Message Posted at:
http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=3159&t=3154
--------------------------------------------------
FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
