Could someone please explain to me why some OSPF summary routes are more
expensive than other routes (even if the cheaper route is accessed via
the more expensive route)?

To illustrate my point, picture the following scenario:

RouterA is connected to RouterB via network 1. Network 1 has a cost of
1.
RouterB is connected to RouterC via network 2. Network 2 has a cost of
4.
RouterC is connected to RouterD via network3. Network 3 has a cost of
16.
Network 4 (which has a cost of 64) is only connected to RouterD.
Network 1 is in OSPF area 1 (RouterA is an internal router and RouterB
is the ABR for area 1)
Network 2 is the only network in backbone area (area 0).
Network 3 and network 4 is in area 2 (RouterD is an internal router and
RouterC is the ABR for area 2)

If you now perform a "show ip route" on RouterA, the cost to network 3
is 149 and the cost to network 4 is 85 !!! Even though network 4 is
accessed via network 3, it is less expensive than network 3. The only
rational explanation that I can find for this is that the ABR for Area2
adds an extra cost-factor for network 3 when it advertised it to other
areas (but I cannot figure out why???). And if this is the case, why
does it not add on an extra cost-factor for network 4 as well???

If someone had an answer to this, please enlighten me. I have to
explain the OSPF costing concepts to some students (and how do you
explain things if you do not understand it yourself?).

Thanking you for your support on this forum.


Abraham de Villiers (Diffy)
Teltraswitch Facilitator
Telkom Centre for Learning

Tel : (021) 550 1855 or (021) 550 1800
Fax: (021) 551 4193
Cell: 082 824 9724
eMail : devilla1@telkom.

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