No i did not, I completely forgot that.

Would that be the cause of this routing issue ? 

-----Original Message-----
From: Robert D. Cluett [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Monday, 29 July 2002 3:04 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: OSPF Routing [7:49982]


Question,

Do you have the "ip classless" command on both routers?

""John Brandis""  wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> Hi All,
>
> Got 2 routers back 2 back working.
>
> RouterA:
> int s0   192.168.10.1/24
> int e0   192.168.7.1/24
> int loopback 0 192.168.70.1/24
>
> routerb:
> int s1  192.168.10.2/24
> int e0  192.168.3.1/24
> int loopback 0 192.168.30.1/24
>
> I try to use ospf routing in summary on each router by
>
> router ospf 20
> network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
>
> However, I outside of directly connected subnets using that. To have full
> conectivity to the network, I have to have on for example router a
>
> router ospf 20
> network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
> network 192.168.7.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
>
> then my routes will work. Should I not be able to simply use a summary of
> 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 on both routers thus enabling me to all the
> routes ? Or is it part of OSPF that all the networks that I wish to
> distribute must be defined on each router ?
>
> Thanks all
>
> John Brandis
>
>
>
>
>
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