Having asked about VoMPLS transcoding from analog voice to MPLS frames without intermediate IP packets, my lab partner noticed that the CVOICE book (edited by Steve McQuerry etal) discusses VoFR and VoATM (chapters 8 and 9):
analog +-------+ +-------+ analog phone A1 ---- | | ATM | | ---- phone B1 ... | rtr A | ---- or FR ---- | rtr B | ... analog ---- | | cloud | | ---- analog phone Ai +-------+ +-------+ phone Bj Are we reading this correctly, that the analog phones plug into the cisco routers and the analog voice traffic is transformed into FR frames or ATM cells, with no IP packets in between? It makes sense to do it that way in some applications. For example, if you have a call center in a distant suburb across a LATA line or two, that services a metropolitan area, then you'd want to bypass long-distance charges if at all possible. This seems like an easy way to do it. But what handles the call control? Does the router do that? Some of the diagrams in the CVOICE book have no PBX (or CCM) in them. Does the router translate the call-control signaling from the analog phone into corresponding pass-through signaling in the ATM/FR packets (sort of like user-to-user signaling that could be passed through SS7, in this case the users are the routers and the network is the ATM/FR switches)? -- TT Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=53567&t=53567 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
