Hello all,
I have a feeling this is more on the remote network routers, but here goes!
I have a client with several remote branches and a frame network. The
local network is 192.168.1.x. The remotes are 192.168.y.x (y=branch
number). They have a pix that I have setup with pptp and it works...
kinda sorta...
I can pptp to the 192.168.1.x network and work just fine. But when I
try to get to 192.168.3.x (or any remote), it doesn't work. I have this
command on the pix:
route inside 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.0.2 1
The 192.168.0.2 is e0/0 on a 3620 and the fe0/1 is 192.168.1.1. The
next router behind the 3620 is a 3640 and AT&T manages that (it is their
frame). All the remote sites come in from remote routers (2610's...
also managed by AT&T) to the 3640, then to the internal 192.168.1.x. I
was led to believe by an AT&T guy at one point that all remotes had
defaults pointing back to the core.
Basically, my question is this... If I am going to call up AT&T, (like
I think I need to do) am I going to
A. tell them to point 10.10.10.x (pool for pptp users) on their remote
routers to the 3620 (ours) and point a route to 10.10.10.x myself
towards the pix
or
B. should I ask them to point the 10.10.10.x to our pix
I always get confused here because everyone says the pix isn't a router.
I understand that, but then where do I put this route? The remotes
have to know a way to get back to it, but I figured that since the local
network can get to it, I could just tell AT&T to point to our 3620....
but I don't have anything on our 3620 that says anything about 10.10.10.x??
Any help??
thanks
bk
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