On Mon, Apr 8, 2013 at 4:02 PM, JvJ <[email protected]> wrote:
>
> Even though the behaviour of lists and vectors differs under specific
> functions, they still count as equal, but this statement "If a = b, then (f
> a) = (f b)" seems like it would be some sort of rule or axiom about
> functional programming. What's the FP purists' view on this?
>
You don't even need different types for this:
user> (deftype Perverse? [a b]
Object
(equals [this other] (= a (.a other))))
user.Perverse?
user> (defn f [^Perverse? p]
(Perverse?. (.b p) (.a p)))
#'user/f
user> (= (->Perverse? 1 2) (->Perverse? 1 4))
true
user> (= (f (->Perverse? 1 2)) (f (->Perverse? 1 4)))
false
user>
--
Ben Wolfson
"Human kind has used its intelligence to vary the flavour of drinks, which
may be sweet, aromatic, fermented or spirit-based. ... Family and social
life also offer numerous other occasions to consume drinks for pleasure."
[Larousse, "Drink" entry]
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