On Nov 7, 2010, at 1:42 PM, Kyle Sluder wrote: >> a) Why does the first code snippet call the completion block "immediately"? >> b) If you assume A's answer is logical and correct, why does adding a >> completion block to the inner transaction affect the outer? >> >> Something seems wrong here. > > Doesn't seem wrong to me. All 0 actions in your first example have completed > when the transaction fires its completion handler.
Right, and that I could understand, except how does the inner transaction affect the outer transaction at all? That seems contradictory. Clearly the outer transaction's completion block depends on the inner's being called first if there is one, but then why doesn't the outer transaction care that the inner transaction hasn't finished before being called at all? That contradiction at the very least seems wrong. It's certainly undocumented and unclear. -- Seth Willits _______________________________________________ Cocoa-dev mailing list (Cocoa-dev@lists.apple.com) Please do not post admin requests or moderator comments to the list. Contact the moderators at cocoa-dev-admins(at)lists.apple.com Help/Unsubscribe/Update your Subscription: http://lists.apple.com/mailman/options/cocoa-dev/archive%40mail-archive.com This email sent to arch...@mail-archive.com
