In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, sintral <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> OK, I'm sure I'm making more of this than what it is. > > I have two domains: domain1.com and domain2.com. Domain1.com is > registered through Register.com and uses it's 3 name servers. Here > onsite we have a Bind8 DNS server that handles several hosts for > domain1.com such as ftp, mail, www, smtp, etc. Domain2.com is > registered through eNomCentral and uses 3 name servers from Earthlink > where the website and a few user email addresses are hosted. > > www.domain2.com and www.domain1.com both need to now point to the IP > address of our new website, which is outsourced. Basically, there was > a company merger and both domains should point to the same site. > > The other hosts on domain1.com still need to resolve to our onsite > office for purposes of mail, ftp, etc, so I've modified the Bind entry > for www.domain1.com to point the public IP of the new website instead > of the private internal IP that it used to point to. The combination > of that DNS record and our Cisco PIX firewall rule of pointing all > port 80 traffic to that same internal IP worked for both internal and > external users. > > I have several questions so far: > > 1. How do the name servers at Register.com know to send all traffic > directed to domain1.com to my public IP? This works currently, but I > can't figure out how. Best I can tell they are using their own > nameservers and there is no reference to my internal Bind8 server. Since you haven't told us the real domain, how do you expect us to know? I don't think anyone can answer any of your followon questions without looking at the current setup of the domains, and your brief description doesn't provide enough information. -- Barry Margolin, [EMAIL PROTECTED] Arlington, MA *** PLEASE don't copy me on replies, I'll read them in the group ***
