On page 31 of Henry William Spiegel's book: "The growth of economic
thought" (the 3rd edition is the one I got):

 https://archive.org/details/growthofeconomic0000spie_r1d4

 https://www.csus.edu/indiv/d/dowellm/econ101/spiegel 1(1).pdf

 there are two statements (very questionably) written as mathematical
equations, one of which, Spiegel said, has been claimed and
re-interpreted throughout the ages in their own ways by different
economic schools of thought mostly in utilitarian or "labour theory of
value" kinds of ways. Aristotle analytically (and semi-poetically)
wrote his "justice in exchange" (in previous times people tended to
mind morality in a more involved way) as:

 ((A: builder)/(B: shoemaker) = X ((D: house)/(D: shoe))

 and on page 33 there is an even more questionable "clarifying"
deduction based on that statement.

 AFAIK, no one knows exactly what happened around 600 BC which made
Ancient Greece intellectually awaken into a new age. Whatever
happened, we know that they were obsessed with two themes:

 1) like ratios: from Archimedes' law of the lever, to the kinds of
metaphors their commanders used as battle cries, to how Aristotle
himself "explained" poetry (which Eco thinks is the only substantial
statement ever since made about the topic) Ancient Greeks understood
everything through like ratios;

 2) they also wondered incessantly about the subjectively moral,
"objectively" social and divine aspects relating to techne from
pre-Socratic times to its best implementation in Euclid's Elements
(three centuries later).

 I am not claiming to be a mind reader, but based on how he used like
ratios for his own sharp and powerful analysis of various subjects, I
think, on the left side of that equation, he can't possibly be
dividing "builders" by "shoemakers" (trying to establish a meaningful
proportion), but the time it takes for them to finish an unit of work
and on the right, determining proportion he is considering the
qualitatively different kind of techne they each use to go about their
business and since the Greek would only compare like ratios, he
introduced that adjusting factor "X" which has made scholars wonder
about it ever since.
~
 Frederick Gustav Weiss in his thoroughgoing "Hegel's critique of
Aristotle's philosophy of mind":

 https://www.amazon.com/Hegels-critique-Aristotles-philosophy-mind/dp/B0006C1EK2

 https://philpapers.org/rec/WEIHCO

 shows how Hegel's concepts and notions resemble Aristotle's and how
Hegel's trains of thought could be interpreted as a continuation of
"the Philosopher's" if not exactly as a chronicler or commentator,
definitely how Hegel critically re-engages Aristotle's work as no one
had done after the Renaissance. About Aristotle Weiss says:

 page 33: ... The sense, for Aristotle, is not the organ as such, nor
it is its relation or contact with objective qualities a "physical" or
mechanical interaction as Ross seemed to suggest.(94) The potential
sense is more like a ratio which is not yet the ratio of anything. The
actual sense is an "enmattered" ratio; that is, one which is
determined by its factors, and which simultaneously holds these
factors, e.g., white and black,
 page 34: etc., in such a way as to allow their discrimination, and
this without changing them. The sense is a mean which unfailingly
establishes itself with respect to any two contrary qualities within
the same genus.

 Which, since our semiosis is the only "enmattered" medium (à la de
Saussure) simultaneously holding and allowing the discrimination of
all meaningful factors of "any two contrary qualities within the same
genus", I take as meaning that that factoring "X" is essentially
semiotic in nature, linking in a societally-wide corpus kind of way
qualitatively different kinds of techne, thereby establishing a fair
exchange value between two different things and manifestingly showing
the necessity for and hows of money, which (in the combined rates way
I explained in a previous post about how NLP folks use "tensors") we
used as equitable aspect, not different to how we use words to go
about our respective businesses.

 As I interpret their philosophy, Anaxagoras "nous", techne, that
"Aristotelian: 'justice in exchange'" equation, Leibniz' "best of all
possible worlds" ideas, Smith's "invisible hand" (previously discussed
to exhaustion by medieval philosophers) and Marx' "socially necessary
labour time" are all aspects relating to the same thing.

 At the risk of being told that I am myself, "self-servingly" trying
to rationalize such readings into Aristotle's analysis, I think that
this is the first explicitly clear hint to our mind-body link being
our semiosis.

 I privately (via email) asked Chalmers about such matters and he told
me he didn't know of such approaches and I publicly asked Eco during a
conference at the UN about it and he even became impatient, seemed to
have gotten upset with me/about such ideas (I even tried to speak to
him privately after his talk to no avail).

 There is simply no way on earth that no one hasn't noticed such
interrelationships and how they relate to corpora research. I am sure
that some of you have stumbled onto such themes and wondered about
them. As a TI, here in "'the' land of 'the' 'free', ..." I can't even
visit a library. There isn't anything illegal about it, it would be
"fair use". Could you do me the favor to send my way or point to me to
any prior art relating to such topics (essentially how corpora
research and the mind-body link intrinsically relate). I am writing a
paper on such matters, but I don't have access to papers that (most
of?) you do. They tell me "I am not a researcher" so they can't grant
me access to such repositories of previous art. Access to such papers
is prohibitively expensive to me right now and at times you pay good
money for a book without any substance whatsoever. There is this
protagonistic tendency to write whatever nonsense crosses one's mind
(apparently to claim priority) as if there were something wrong with
Aristotle's approach. In a "footnotes to Plato" kind of way, I think
timely (from "'more' to 'post-'modern") progress is a functional
illusion. Aristotle's analysis is fine, we just can't match his
intellectual prowess.

 Thank you,
 lbrtchx
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