-Caveat Lector-
In a message dated 99-07-08 18:13:36 EDT, [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
>Rights have meaning only if there is a remedy for their violation. The
>Supreme Court's deecisions mean that there is no remedy against state
>governments even when they violate rights created by federal law.
The Bill of Rights is a FEDERAL document, is it not? Kiss your rights
goodbye ...
Let's hear it for devolution --dis-integration-- here in the newly dis-United
States.
So now we can "constitutionally" have states in which freedom of speech is
punished, slavery is re-instituted, women are reduced to non-voting masculine
"property," and legal protections are limited to "citizens," redefined
perhaps as the very wealthy -- or in which a homosexual orientation is
required in order to obtain employment, or pedophilia is institutionalized in
the school system -- or in which candidacy for FEDERAL political office
(senators, congressmen) is restricted to Moonies, Scientologists, Klansmen,
tree-worshippers, or whatever, thus altering the balance of our NATIONAL
legislature...
What is there to prevent legal argument that municipal governments (cities or
towns) now also have the right to enact legislation that violates federal AND
state law? That "sovereign individuals" may likewise violate municipal,
state, and federal laws, in the ultimate application of this peculiar
principle, "sovereign immunity" from prosecution?
A return to the Hobbesian version of "natural law" -- "The war of EACH
against ALL."
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