So would it be correct to claim that: if k1 <: k2 and (T1::k1) and (t2::k2) for some type T1 and tyvar t2 and A :=: B is an equality axiom then A[T1/t2] :=: B[T1/t2] ?
(Not asking for a proof or anything, just whether I'm drawing the correct conclusion from your explanation.) Thanks, Tim -- Tim Chevalier * http://cs.pdx.edu/~tjc * Often in error, never in doubt "Well-behaved women rarely make history." --Laurel Thatcher Ulrich _______________________________________________ Cvs-ghc mailing list [email protected] http://www.haskell.org/mailman/listinfo/cvs-ghc
