On Thu 10/11/07 10:05 CDT Matthew Woehlke wrote:
> Tom Rodman wrote:
> > Is there a way to prove that a given process with more than 1 thread,
> > is still restricted to just one CPU?
> 
> Unless you have manually set affinity, why would this be true? More 
> likely, only one thread is actually doing anything.

Thanks Matthew.

I meant to ask: 

  Is there a way to prove that a given process with more than 1
  thread, must always have all it's threads on a single CPU at
  any given time ( over the life of the process, I assume the all
  it's threads could shift from CPU to CPU)?

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