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At 8:53 PM +0100 on 7/2/02, Adam Back wrote:


> Just curious, but what was the rationale under which private
> posession of gold was made illegal in the US?  It boggles the
> mind...

Roosevelt wanted to make the dollar a fiat currency, IIRC. Before
then, you could redeem dollars for gold, after then you could redeem
dollars for, well, dollars.

This was slid sideways a bit after the war by the Bretton Woods
agreement, which made various European currencies exchangeable into
dollars at mostly fixed rates, and *foreigners* could exchange
dollars into gold.

Which, once Europe was on its feet financially, and Johnson's
democrats began inflating the dollar to pay for Vietnam and other fun
things,  deGaulle's France (did I spell those both right, AAA? :-))
happily started changing dollars into gold, FOB Paris, thank you very
much.

At which point, Nixon floated the dollar, and, at the same time,
allowed the private possession of gold in the US again. Then he did
something really stupid and instituted price controls, but, he was
always an Nerf-Conservative political opportunist anyway, or at least
a Keynesian, which is the same thing, even Le Monde Diplomatique says
so ;-)...

Fortunately, the rest of the innumeracy that was the New Deal has
been going down the shitter since then. They finally got rid of the
Glass-Stegal act a few years ago, for instance, the law that
bifurcated investment banks and banks of deposit.

Cheers,
RAH

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