On Mon, 9 Feb 2004, Andrew Pimlott wrote: > It seems consistent and logical to normalize nanoseconds when > multiplying durations. There is also a comment about normalization that > seems both redundant and misleading (since comparison doesn't depend on > nanoseconds being normalized; I assume comparison used to be done > without a reference time).
Actually, comparison just wasn't done before, because without a reference time it doesn't make sense. > Although, looking at _normalize_nanoseconds and the tests for it, I > don't understand the sense of "normalizing" to (-1, 1) at all. I'm not sure what you're referring to. Anyway, I applied your patch. -dave /*======================= House Absolute Consulting www.houseabsolute.com =======================*/
