Ron Johnson <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes: > > No, that's not true. "reasonable person" (actually, they say > > "reasonable man") is a quite well-defined concept in American law. > > Is "reasonable man" the same in San Francisco and Birmingham, AL?
Um, workplace harrasment cases are not the same as obscenity cases. I think you are alluding to obscenity rules, which depend not on a reasonable man test, but on a community standards test. The definition of the reasonable man test is the same everywhere; it is implemented by juries, judges, and appeals courts.