Ron Johnson <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:

> > No, that's not true.  "reasonable person" (actually, they say
> > "reasonable man") is a quite well-defined concept in American law.
> 
> Is "reasonable man" the same in San Francisco and Birmingham, AL?

Um, workplace harrasment cases are not the same as obscenity cases.  I
think you are alluding to obscenity rules, which depend not on a
reasonable man test, but on a community standards test.

The definition of the reasonable man test is the same everywhere; it
is implemented by juries, judges, and appeals courts.


Reply via email to