Eion Robb <e...@robbmob.com> writes: > > There's no “fair use” in trademark law AFAIK. > http://lmgtfy.com/?q=trademark+law+fair+use&l=1
(Leads to <URL:http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fair_use_(U.S._trademark_law)>) Okay, so it seems (according to Wikipedia) that the USA does recognise a “trademark fair use”, which *does* allow referring to the product (using the mark “nominatively”): In the United States, trademark law includes a fair use defense, sometimes called "trademark fair use" to distinguish it from the better-known fair use doctrine in copyright. […] A nonowner may also use a trademark nominatively—to refer to the actual trademarked product or its source. […] This does, to my mind, permit using the mark to say “this product supports that other product and/or service”, and doesn't need the trademark holder's permission. Whether other jurisdictions have a similar allowance, I don't know. -- \ “Holy knit one purl two, Batman!” —Robin | `\ | _o__) | Ben Finney -- To UNSUBSCRIBE, email to debian-legal-requ...@lists.debian.org with a subject of "unsubscribe". Trouble? Contact listmas...@lists.debian.org