On Wednesday, 24 April 2013 at 10:33:49 UTC, Ivan Kazmenko wrote:
On Wednesday, 24 April 2013 at 10:26:19 UTC, Andrea Fontana
wrote:
I'd like to mention that there's no such mathematical object
as "uniform distribution on [0..+infinity)".
... you neither can choose a random real number in any
interval ...
... but that is at least valid mathematically, albeit
achievable only approximately on a computer. On the other
hand, an infinite case, even if it would be possible, won't be
practical anyway since with probability 1, the result would
require more bits to store than available on any modern
hardware.
I mean that a random real number is not valid mathematically too.
In any given real interval there are infinite numbers, how you
can choose a number in an infinite (and non-numerable!) interval?
I think you always need some sampling.
What's the probability to guess a precise number in [0..1]? I
think is 0 as long as you have infinite numbers.
What's the probability to guess a interval in [0..1]? I think
it's the interval size.
Am I wrong?
