On 6/2/2016 3:27 PM, John Colvin wrote:
I wonder what rationale there is for Unicode to have two different sequences
of codepoints be treated as the same. It's madness.
There are languages that make heavy use of diacritics, often several on a single
"character". Hebrew is a good example. Should there be only one valid ordering
of any given set of diacritics on any given character?
I didn't say ordering, I said there should be no such thing as "normalization"
in Unicode, where two codepoints are considered to be identical to some other
codepoint.
