Peter Alexander <peter.alexander...@gmail.com> wrote:
I must be missing something, because I don't understand how you could possibly take the cross product of any number of infinite ranges (other than to just return the range of (a[0], b[i]) for all (infinitely many) i in b). Note that I'm assuming you mean cartesian product, rather than cross product; I've never heard cross product used in the context of sets.
Quite simple - the result is also an infinte range (infinitely infinite, if you will :p ), that is lazily calculated. And yes, Cartesian product is exactly what we're talking about. -- Simen
